Israeli "preemption" in 1967

Submitted by Don Radlauer (Israel), Nov 2, 2005 at 12:34

Mr. Pipes wrote:

> That three Arab states tightened a noose around Israel in 1967 did not prove they intended to attack it.


This is and isn't true. It's true that the "noose" (by itself and absent intelligence data) didn't prove conclusively that an armed attack was imminent. On the other hand, Egypt's closing of the Straits of Tiran to Israeli and Israel-bound traffic was an act of war, in fact and in law. Thus, while Israel fired the first shot of the war, the 1967 war itself was started by the Arabs. Saying that the Arabs might not have intended to attack Israel gives the impression that Israel was much more at fault for the outbreak of the war than was the case.

-Don Radlauer
Associate, The Institute for Counter-Terrorism at the Interdisciplinary Center, Herzliya
http://radlauer.blogspot.com

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