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Once more Persians and Copts

Reader comment on item: Dhimmis No More
in response to reader comment: Persian and Egyptian languages: Scripts v spoken languages

Submitted by gato branco (Lithuania), Jan 15, 2018 at 01:57

Oh, no, Persian did not reject the "language of God" throughout all the medieval period it was widely used for the most of the theological and philosophical discourse. However it was not adopted for more secular domains as poetry, nor it was adopted as the colloquial language. Actually the poetry of Rudaki, Ferdowsi and Sa'adi had little to do with God and religion, Hafiz, Rumi and Jami more, but the latter felt that arabized Persian language is quite adequate to express theological and philosophical truths of Islam. e,g, the philosophical Sufi work "Naqsh al-Fusus" quite religious in nature was written half in Persian and half in Arabic.

Another important thing was the Shu'ubiya movement, namely that Persians felt that they can remain faithful to the religion of Islam without the wholesale adoption of the Arabic culture. Adoption of the Arabic script and certain amount of loanwords was deemed sufficient.

Was there any Shuubiya movement among islamized Egyptians? Was there any secular poetry? At least myself I am not aware of any.

I can read texts in Arabic(with some efforts), I have some rudiments of Syriac(actually I have read some excerpts of Peshitta in Syriac) and I had only started to learn Coptic(as you call it Egyptian) some time ago but had not continued but hope to resume one day.

Submitting....

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