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I disagree with your statement about Spain in 1200

Reader comment on item: Dhimmis No More

Submitted by gato branco (Lithuania), Dec 20, 2017 at 02:47

Factually incorrect statement - "in 1200 or so, one would much rather be a Christian living in Muslim Spain than a Muslim living in Christian Spain. Likewise for Jews: Mark R. Cohen observes that "the Jews of Islam, especially during the formative and classical centuries (up to the thirteenth century), experienced much less persecution than did the Jews of Christendom."

Around 1200 the regime of Almohads was notorious for persecution, deportation and forced conversions of Christians and Jews, while Christian Spain was still quite tolerant of Jews and Muslims (Spanish Jews from Almohads fled both to Christian Spain or other Islamic countries), intolerance in Christian Spain arose later in 14-15th century and reached its culmination from the end of the 15th century to the beginning of the 17th century, when all Jews and Muslims were either forced to baptize or were expelled. If we take the entire Medieval period then the claim that religious minorities in the Muslim world were better off than in the Christian world maybe is right to some extent but it is certainly wrong in the specific case of Spain in 1200 (and in some other historical periods).

One of these periods – post-Mongolian period in Eastern Muslim lands – resembles to the post-colonial one described in the article, since the attitude of Mongol rulers towards non-Muslim minorities was often similar to Western colonialists – the non-Muslims were more inclined to accept Mongol rule and serve as intermediaries between Mongols and their Muslim subjects. Afterwards when Muslims reestablished the supremacy of Islam they exacted cruel revenge on Christian subjects for the faults of Mongols, I think that the Nestorian Church present in Central Asia until 14th century became largely extinct there.

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