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Explanation of the Holy One of Israel - In Hebrew Terms or Greek?

Reader comment on item: "Godless Saracens Threatening Destruction":
in response to reader comment: re the Hebrew Bible

Submitted by M Tovey (United States), Dec 9, 2020 at 14:23

Then why does Yeshua say salvation is of the Jews, which John explained in the Greek?
My explanations come from decades of study; yours sounds like the anti-Semitic rhetoric that would debate the Jewish name of Yeshua versus Jesus, coming out of the Nicene period.
Who is the Holy One of Israel (Isaiah 44:6)? Was this in paleo-Hebrew or in the later square letter calligraphic format?
Capitalization of the WORD of the LORD comes from respect implicated by the authority of the authors: WORD is the name of Jesus implicated by John; LORD is the generalized name that many of the authors defer to for Jehovah, El Elyon, El Shaddai, and HaShem יהוה


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