Submitted by Kattey(United States), Dec 1, 2008 at 21:22
My dear sir
Perhaps you aren't allowed to study the works on the formation of the Quran but I can. The Quran was put together by human hands, just as was the Torah and New Testament.
Mohammed had his Companions memorize verses to be included in the Quran, but one Companion was killed in battle before he could recite his verses. His verses were lost forever. The Quran is missing these verses. An inscription on stone was recently discovered northeast of Jordan written before the Quran that shows diacritical marks were used in the Arabic language at that early time. So I ask you, why weren't the marks used in the Quran to give definite meanings to the verses? The verse I have seen discussed most is the one referring to 72 virgins in heaven, but in Aramaic the verse is talking about white grapes. The lack of diacritical marks leaves the Quran open to different interpretations, which extremist Muslims take advantage of.
The order of the verses were reversed by the early Quran editors so that the first verses are last and the last verses are first. You can bet the first verses were recited by Mohammed., but I don't know about the last (first). I believe the war-like verses were added after Mohammed died. Otherwise why does the Quran frequently contradict itself? Mohammed was no dummy, and I believe he knew how to write more than is acknowledged. Else how could he have been a good merchant?
We want peace with Muslims. The Jews and Arabs are kin by marriage. Abraham himself married two Egyptian women. Read Genesis to find out about all of Abraham's kids--there were a lot of them.
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