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Apartheid State of Transjordan

Reader comment on item: Is Jordan Palestine?

Submitted by Robert (United States), Feb 3, 2023 at 20:41

Dear Dr. Daniel Pipes,

There is much confusions over the status of Palestine and its administrative division between 1920-1921,

Yes, the British had the authority to split Palestine in two for administrative purposes. But it is easy to argue that they had no authority to impose or tolerate a racist form of discrimination against the Jews right to "close-settlement" in Transjordan. In fact, that's what happened until the League of Nations granted it it's independence in 1946. Transjordan's independence was internationally recognized on 18 April 1946 by the League of Nations during its last meeting.

Accordingly, a two-state solution was in fact potentially imposed on Jews worldwide - it took 2 more years before Israel was recognized.

I think that's the international legal point you miss, Dr. Daniels: that 2 years before Israel came into beinn, a full Palestinian state was created first.

You are further distracted by the fact that by that time the United Nations took over when the United Kingdom abandoned its Mandate in West Jordan, and the the General Assembly recommended (about 1948) the further partitioning of the Palestine Mandate which by then was only "West Jordan."

So Jordan is an Apartheid Palestinian state with no Jews in it - contrary to the old Mandate of 1920. In the alternative, by what right did the Emirate head of Transjordan have a human or other international right to prevent Jews from settling in Transjordan (where Jews lived in ancient times)?


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