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The autonomous Jewish nation was in Jordan as much as in Israel

Reader comment on item: Is Jordan Palestine?

Submitted by Jae (United States), Nov 17, 2009 at 19:50

In fact, our sovereignty STARTED in Jordan with defeat of Amorites under Moses' lead! The tribe of Reuven, Gad and half of Menasheh were the FIRST to have designated land! Only later, when Moses passed away did Joshua lead the rest of the Israelites into Canaan and conquered the area.

What we today call Jordan was ours, as a people, BEFORE what we today call Israel!


Even in the 2nd commonwealth The Jewish sovereign kingdom under the Hasmoneans included all the inhabitable area of todays "Jordan".

I beg to defer Daniel Pipes. Jordan is "Palestine" as much as Israel can be claimed to be.

As for options, though none are necessarily easy, 21 yrs later (your article was written in 1988) your "outcome thesis" of preserving the "status quo" has been miserably shortsighted.

1) the world pressue for Israel to be 8-15 miles wide is increasing
2) we know what happens when arabs, er, "palestinians" have Israel leave. Gaza.

Jordan IS Palestine. It is 78% of the Palestine Mandate, its population is 80% palestinian, and its numerically insignificant royal family are British imports from another area entirely (modern day saudi arabia), circa 1920.

Israel can not be 8 miles wide. If Palestine/Jordan wants to be antagonistic they will reap what they sow. Its time for the weakness of 20 centuries of ghetto living, to come out of the Jew Daniel. When this is done we will be alright, b'ezrat Hashem.


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