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Proof of the difference between theory and practice

Reader comment on item: Is Jordan Palestine?
in response to reader comment: Jordan and the Mandate for Palestine

Submitted by David (United States), Jun 6, 2014 at 23:39

Some people spend too much time in academics and don't quite get the big picture. What the quote you provided shows that the British didn't extend direct control of the local Mandate administrator over trans-Jordan. It does not show tha the territory was outside of the Mandate. There's a difference between whether or not it was part of Mandate Palestine and whether or not the local British did anything about that.

As trans-Jordan was a bonus prize for the Hashemites conning T.E. Lawrence out of British gold and then not sharing with other tribes, so they lost their civil war against enemies lead by the family Saud doesn't change the fact that trans-Jordan was part of British Mandate Palestine until it gained independence in 1946.

Rather than academic tangents, let's go to the Jordanian government site, http://www.kinghussein.gov.jo/jordan.html#, note that the 1946 part of the timeline says that's when the Hashemite Kingdom was created. It was only in that year that the UK signed an agreement granting independence. However, even then there were questions about whether or not the League of Nations recognition of the agreement was enough to do anything without the formal ending of the Mandate.

It takes more than lack of local control to end the legal Mandate status. Nothing you presented contradicts that or indicates it happened before 1946.

Submitting....

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