Is (Western) Anti-Semitism Mostly Islamist?

Submitted by Ludvikus (United States), Feb 5, 2022 at 16:04

Dear Dr. Daniel Pipes,

I have an impression that in the West, the subject of your interest regarding the Ideology you call "Islamism" is responsible for most (majority) of Anti-Semitism. In particular, incidence of writing and violence against Jews are more likely to occur by individuals who identify as Muslims, particularly in the United States, the United Kingdom, and France. But I do not hear that being called out as such. The subtle suggestion by the media, and even Jewish advocacy is that the incidence is do to some White Nazis or Fascists.

Does my impression conform to reality? Do you think this is due to negligence?

If it is true that most violent incidents of Anti-Semitism in the last decade or so are acts of Islamists, why is it not so described? And why do Jewish organizations fail to describe Anti-Semitism as mostly Islamist in nature?

Take the latest incident of the 4 hostages held by the Pakistani terrorist in a synagogue in Texas who arrived from the United Kingdom. This was clearly not an American incident of Antisemitism, except that it occurred on US soil; it was an incident of Pakistani Islamist Antisemitism imported into the USA.

In brief, I would say that Western Islamism is also fundamentally Foreign and Antisemitic. It appears that the United Kingdom's Colonialism resulted, inter alia, in "importing" through Immigration Islamist Antisemitic Terrorists. So why not describe explicitly these Islamist Terrorists as "Anti-Semitic Terrorists" as well?

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