Submitted by Adam (United States), Aug 24, 2016 at 10:44
I have long thought this was a good idea.
The First Amendment's Establishment Clause prohibits the US government from making any law "respecting an establishment of religion." This clause not only forbids the government from establishing an official religion, but also prohibits government actions that unduly favor one religion over another. It also prohibits the government from unduly preferring religion over non-religion, or non-religion over religion.
Therefore, having a foreign government, like Saudi Arabia, establish/favor a church would violate the spirit of the establishment clause. Why should a foreign government be allowed to establish/favor a church if the US government is barred from doing so?
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