Guiding the perplexed again! and again!

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Nov 14, 2012 at 12:50

Our dear Amin is it true that Muhammad said that it is OK to be a liar under three conditions? So while waiting for your answer here is another source from

http://www.syriacstudies.com/words

And the entery for the word اسم or name you will get Syriac: ܫܡ or shm or ܫܡܐ shma and in both Arabic and Syriac the "in the" means ب or B and in Syriac it is ܒ or and you guessed it B

So the correct Arabic word for in the name of becomes: بإسم and not the bogus Quranic بسم and in Syriac it is ܒܫܡ or bishm

So you know what? this means that the Quranic disaster Bism or بسم

1. It is either a mistake so is it a mistake our dear Amin al-tablighee?

2. Or is a loan word from Syriac ܒܫܡ or bishm and you know what? It is a loan word from Syriac and i do believe that the rasm of the word could have been read as بشم

What a disaster

Now would you get this/ I doubt it very much

Oh and more about the fact that islam says that it is OK to be a liar

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