Submitted by Sabba Hillel(United States), Dec 30, 2005 at 12:15
I should point out that the Jewish definition of "slavery", from the Bible, is not that of the Moslems (or as it was in the United States before the Civil War). Indeed the Bible's "Fugitive Slave Law" is that the Jews are forbidden to force a runaway slave to return to his master. The rules are more that of an "indentured servant" with specific limits and restrictions.
This differs from the non Jewish definition of a slave who is someone who has been kidnapped or forced into servitude.
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