Daniel J. Pipes

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What's in a name?

Reader comment on item: Pretending There's a Country Called "Palestine"
in response to reader comment: Palestine never existed

Submitted by Kattey (United States), Nov 16, 2007 at 13:54

I asked an Israeli archaeologist why Palestine refers to the entire area, especially since the word wasn't coined until 135CE when Emperor Hadrian renamed it from Judea/Israel to Palestine when he sent the Jews on the Diaspora. His purpose in renaming was to cut off Jewish identity with the land. The archaeologist said Palestine is also used as the name prior to 135CE--it's just easier.


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Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".

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