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ISIS v ISIL

Reader comment on item: There's No Difference between ISIS and ISIL

Submitted by Jeanette Jonas (United Kingdom), Sep 14, 2014 at 06:03

Daniel Pipes tells it as it is! But does Obama use ISIL in order to appease his Muslim buddies in Qatar, Turkey and Saudi ? It is a method that Muslim government often use to appease both sides. For instance Fatah has said one thing in English to show they are part of a coalition of peace and then when speaking in Arabic there is a different interpretation and anti Israel bias. Therefore does Obama use this term ISIL to tell the Muslim world he includes Israel as part of the terrorist network in the Middle East?

Submitting....

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Daniel Pipes replies:

You missed the point that Sham or Syria also includes Israel.

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Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".

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