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Jesus in the Holy Bible - Prophetically and Fulfilled

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in response to reader comment: Jesus in the Bible

Submitted by M. Tovey (United States), Dec 5, 2011 at 15:50

And here is where you create your own confusion: which deeds and actions of Jesus Christ/Yeshua HaMashiach do you follow and which do you not? If this were true, then by your own admission and those of others, Jesus is not the same as the Islamic Prophet.

By your own admission the words of Jesus needs to be examined under Biblically influenced study of the parole evidence, which you claim by others of ancient times to be corrupted; or by the differing claims of the Quran, which has no substantiated references or parole evidence.

For Jesus Christ to be as the true Christian witness declares, His person as the perfect Son of Almighty God is of a necessity, to be believed; or His words cannot be true. The Quran does not teach the perfection of Issah al-Masseh.

For Jesus Christ to be as the true Christian witness declares, true Christians must abide in Him, and He in them so that His words are found in His Truth. The Quran does not teach this.

For Jesus Christ to be as the true Christian witness declares, as I do declare, Jesus took my sin to the cross with Him in love and forgiveness. The Quran does not offer this.

For Jesus Christ to be as the true Christian witness declares, one is given the witness that Jesus offered His Spirit to comfort, teach and guide in love and obedience. The Quran not only does not offer that – it tries to take it away.

You have offered glimpses of what you believe, yet you have not offered irrefutable evidences, only repetitions of the same ancient accusations that have survived until this day. You bolster your beliefs with assertions of Quranic verses, yet except by your own admission, you have relied upon what you were taught in your youth and have used your independent prejudices to maintain your position. I used to do the same from a former perception of the issues. Then the words of Jesus Christ changed all that.

Let us view the words of Jesus: "Why do you call me Good?" First, who 'called Him Good?' Was it not a Jewish citizen calling Him 'Good Master?' If so, then what gave that Jewish person the presumption that he could call Yeshua "Good," for certainly the rulers were not teaching that? If not humanly prompted to call Him "Good," one might surmise that the Spirit of Almighty God gave that person the prompt, as the scriptures prophesied. So if the Jewish person was able to call Yeshua "Good," then by scriptural influence, this was and is a validation of Yeshua's Messiahship; and of His divine nature.

It is only one of so many descriptions of who Yeshua is and is it too bad that the same prejudices of His first appearance continue today.

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