Why is that Arabs are never the object of the critique?

Submitted by Ignacio (Spain), Dec 7, 2004 at 18:22

Why is that when you have somebody speaking about the Middle East, he/she gets his/her explanations out of place because he/she is jewish, but never bothers doing the same if this person is a Muslim or Arab? It's odd how the anti Zionist racism is "legitimate critique towards Israel", but you never hear this legitimate critique towards Arab or Muslim countries, al least not without hearing a call for jihad because of your "Islamophobia". Where are these leftish lawyers of the free speech then?

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