69 million page views

Before 1979, under the Shah, to what extent, if any, did Sharia (Law) apply?

Reader comment on item: The Revolt in Iran Lacks Leadership
in response to reader comment: leading where?

Submitted by Robert (United States), Dec 16, 2022 at 18:52

Dear Dr. Daniel Pipes,

Besides being a Monarchy under the Shah of Iran, to what extent was Sharia a part of the law of the land in Iran?

And how that that determine if the Iranian people can institute a Secular Republic consistent with their history and culture?

Whether or not a leader will emerge, we can try to anticipate what sort of regime might be feasible for Iran, and when, if ever, will there be an effort to draft a Written Constitution to be submitted as a Referendum or Plebiscite?


Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".

Follow Daniel Pipes

Facebook   Twitter   RSS   Join Mailing List

All materials by Daniel Pipes on this site: © 1968-2023 Daniel Pipes. daniel.pipes@gmail.com and @DanielPipes

Support Daniel Pipes' work with a tax-deductible donation to the Middle East Forum.Daniel J. Pipes

(The MEF is a publicly supported, nonprofit organization under section 501(c)3 of the Internal Revenue Code.

Contributions are tax deductible to the full extent allowed by law. Tax-ID 23-774-9796, approved Apr. 27, 1998.

For more information, view our IRS letter of determination.)