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Religious vs. Secular Claims to Palestine as a Holy Land

Reader comment on item: President Arafat? [and the Jordan-Is-Palestine Issue]
in response to reader comment: Apartheid Apparitions of Palestine

Submitted by Robert (United States), Dec 18, 2021 at 20:47

Sear M Tovey,

Actually, I was not interested in the Religious Argument - the fact is that Israel's emergency as a Jewish State appeasers as a Miracle both to Jews and Christian in huge numbers; and now even Muslims among Arab states (such as the UAE) appear to accept Israel as a sovereign state of (Israeli) Jews.

Rather, I am interested in the Secular argument of Jews RECONSTITUTING themselves in Palestine. More specifically, if you focus your attention on the expression "POLITICAL RIGHTS" in the League of Nations for Palestine, you will find that Jews are protected from loosing such rights in places OUTSIDE of Palestine, while non-Jewish residents of Palestine are ONLY protected from discrimination against their Religious and Civil Rights. More particularly, non-Jews are NOT protected in regard to their Political Rights. It is clear to me that the omission of the word "Political" in the Balfour Declaration (which was adopted by the League of Nations) was DELIBERATE. So Palestine was to be a Political Entity for Jews. All this is a Secular fact embodies in the Mandate which continued with the United Nations.

However, I mostly discussed above what happened in Jordan, which was known as Transjordan in1946, but was actual East Palestine before its 1946 Independence. True, it was administered separately by the British. But the crucial question I raised is under what grounds did the British prevent Jews from settling in what eventually was to become the Kingdom of Jordan? The answer is clearly the British APARTHEID Policy of prohibiting Jews from settling in it (Jordan). In other words, it's Jews who are victims of Apartheid in Jordan (Wast Palestine.

In addition, there is the secular historical fact that the Jews (of Judah) were the victims of Roman, Arab, and Ottoman Colonialism throughout the history of these empires. Accordingly, when the British and French Empires conquered and defeated the Ottoman Empire during World War One, they, and the League of Nations, and its successor, the United Nations, mere recognized the right of the Jews to RECONSTITUTE themselves in Palestine aka the Holy Land. This is Irredentism, and not Colonialism; it's the Jews returning to their land after 2,000 years of Pagan, Christian, and Muslim "Ethnic Cleansing" and Imperial "Colonialism" against the Jews. In other words, no one gave the Jews the right to "Colonize" Palestine; rather the Jews were recognize as having the right to return to their HOMELAND. The concern was that the non-Political Rights of the non-Jews in Palestine be protected. The "Achilles Heel" which created non-Jewish Jordan was Article 25 of the League of Nations Mandate that effectively permitted the British Imperialist to lay the foundation of non-Jewish Kingdom of Jordan by making sure that is 100% free of Jews - which to the best of my knowledge it is today.


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