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Too bad the salvation was not extended to cananites

Reader comment on item: My Views of Islam and Islamism
in response to reader comment: Why do you quote a corrupted book to prove a point?

Submitted by Abdulkarim Al-habsi (Oman), Feb 3, 2014 at 23:50

To set records straight, first, I am an Arab from the Sultanate of Oman.

Secondly, I don't ask a mullah, stupid or otherwise, on matters of faith. I can read and interpret the Quran and the words and deeds of my prophet myself, thank you very much.

As to your question why I quote what you think I perceive as corrupted book, you are wrong. In Islam, the bible and the torah are not corrupted as such, but modified or distorted. I am not a Muslim if I don't believe in the divinity of the Bible and the Torah. But I am asked to be cautious about them, as certain parts of the two holy books are distorted, not corrupted. The Arabic word used is "حرف" from the verb "تحريف" which more accurately translates to distorted or imprecise, not corrupted.

As to your question why I quote the bible, it is to answer the gentleman who postulates that Christianity in the way it is written is for the salvation of mankind, and I pointed him to the "distortion" in the bible with regards to its treatment of the Canaanites.

And it will be of great help to all, if your arguments are wee bit more civil. There is no need to be abusive.

Submitting....

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