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Source of the EU's unwillingness?

Reader comment on item: [Muslims vs. Jews, the New] Locus of Euro-Hate

Submitted by Robert Mayhew (United States), Dec 9, 2003 at 22:01

Daniel Pipes begins by stating that "Anti-Semitism in Europe was for nearly two millennia a Christian phenomenon; now it is basically a Muslim one." But this is not to say anti-Semitism is no longer a phenomenon among non-Muslim Europeans. In fact, to my mind the big question that remains unanswered in the article—and I would be interested in Mr. Pipes's views on this—is: Why is the EU unwilling "to confront the pattern of anti-Jewish hostility emerging from Muslim religious, media, and educational institutions"? Why is it "unlikely" that Europeans will "find the strength forthrightly to address this problem"?
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