Submitted by James (United States), Jan 15, 2003 at 20:01
How can female genital mutilation "follow from some basic Islamic assumptions about sexuality and ways to order a righteous society", given that it originated centuries before the advent of Islam (the type practised in north eastern Africa is still described in Arabic 'al-faroniyya'). "The practice is almost entirely limited to Muslim societies"..... true, but we could also say "Most Muslim societies do not practice FGM".
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