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Who is Semitic and Who is Not and Why It Matters

Reader comment on item: Jerusalem, Jordan, and the Jews
in response to reader comment: Who are the historical Arabs and who are the Aramaeans?

Submitted by M Tovey (United States), Aug 27, 2020 at 15:11

For DNM;
Your ending paragraph about how it seemed the Hebrew Holy Writ had only a minimal observance of the ethnic Arab in the ancient times; and the sense that the relative minimalist participation Arab population was due to demographics (my word-opinion only) of the times; that the more involvement that other participating tribal/national/ethnic peoples were more noticeable due to their involvement with how they treated their relationship with the Children of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob and Israel. There is more prophetic intimations about the Arabs in the Hebrew Holy Scriptures that many realize, since Arabic as an ethnicity appears to be more diverse than what has been accepted in these modern interpretations of the times we are in.
As you wrote elsewhere in this forum, the issues of religious intellectualism that touches on the Arabic influences of the modern Middle East is not being determined strictly on Arabic terms, but on 'foreign' influences imposed by religious elitism that was utilized to force submission on subject peoples; and bring division to the idea that one form of monotheistic religious control cannot be how humanity must live in the Middle East while Israel still stands on lands everyone wants to control, from Egypt to the Golan.
The Hebrew Holy Writ is Semitic, just as being Arabic is Semitic; "Palestinians' as a name is not Semitic: so how does that work?

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