Interesting Observation

Submitted by Asif (United States), Feb 2, 2012 at 17:42

Is the rise of anarchy simply a sudden original event or is it a tangent of Spengler's "Decline of the West" theory? In addition, is it related to the receding of Western Power and the reassertion of Primitivism or is it a result of something that has roots in Western Individualism itself? I would greatly appreciate it if someone answered these questions for me.

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".