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no difference

Reader comment on item: Istinja' with the Torah and New Testament
in response to reader comment: traduction big troubles

Submitted by the Grand Infidel of Kaffiristan (Australia), Sep 25, 2010 at 21:00

Abdellah, sounding slightly confused, writing from the Infidel land of Germany , says:

"...can someone explain me why changing this thing to have the opposite of the meaning? "

Perhaps you should take a few more English lessons

The original quote given was:

"........They are known to have been corrupted, so there is no problem disdaining them.)..."

and Mr. Abdellah pleads:

what is wrote exactly is : "but what we know that is changed and not contain a sacred name, there is no problem to offend it - ...can someone explain me why changing this thing to have the opposite of the meaning? ""

The sentences mean essentially the same thing - the first is not the opposite of the second. To corrupt something means to change from its original condition - with the sense that the end product is wose than the original.


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