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Islamic Nikah

Reader comment on item: Misyar – Temporary Marriage in Sunni Islam

Submitted by Mohammad Asghar (United States), May 17, 2022 at 17:59

Below is my article on the subject

What is Islamic Nikah?
By: Mohammad Asghar

Allah, if he exists, is believed to have told Muhammad the following:

33:50: "O Prophet, We have made lawful for thee thy wives whom thou hast given their wages and what thy right hand owns, spoils of war that God has given thee, and the daughters of thy uncles paternal and aunts paternal, thy uncles maternal and aunts maternal, who have emigrated with thee, and any woman believer, if she give herself to the Prophet and if the Prophet desire to take her in marriage, for thee exclusively, apart from the believers -- We know what We have imposed upon them touching their wives and what their right hands own -- that there may be no fault in thee; God is All-forgiving, All-compassionate" (translation by Arberry).

According to the Quran, marriage (Quran 2:237) and divorce (Quran 2:229) are in the hands of Muslim men. This means Muslim women can't marry men of their choice, nor can they divorce their husbands in the manner of men. The reason for this being:

If Muslim women were given the right to marry Muslim men, it would have been neigh impossible for them to ask men to pay them a price before engaging in sex with them. Without paying them their price, Muslim women will not be men's sex slaves for life.

If Muslim women were given the right to divorce their Muslim husbands, it would mean their husbands would be losing the money they paid them at the time of buying them.

Keeping the above Quranic verse in mind, let us analyze what it is telling us. But before doing that, we need to split the verse into four categories, which are as below:

First category: sex with wives;
Second category: sex with slaves;
Third category: sex with cousins (sisters), and,
Fourth category: sex with women who offered themselves to Muhammad.

A woman becomes a "wife" only after getting married to a man. If a Muslim man marries a slave-woman, she becomes his "wife." She does not, and will not, remain a slave to him. The man will not, and can never, say the slave woman he married is his "slave wife"!

Now let us see what the above verse is saying:

1. It says those women were lawful or halal for Muhammad to have sex with, whom he had paid the bridal money or purchase money at the time of marrying them. The purchase money can also be defined as their wages for providing lifelong sexual service to their men. The women's wages must be paid before the first penetration takes place. If the wages are not paid to women and penetration takes place that leads to the women's pregnancy, it would mean that both the men and women are guilty of committing "zina" (illegal sex) and that the children the women will be giving birth to would be harami (illegitimate).

In our today's world, most of the Muslims, Islamically speaking, are illegitimate (harami) men and women because most Muslim men did not in the past, nor do they in the present, pay wages to the Muslim women before taking them to bed.

2. The next issue relates to slave women. It says that those captive slave women whom Allah had given Muhammad as booty of war were lawful or halal for him to have sex with. It did not make it necessary for Muhammad to marry them because this would have required him to pay them their purchase money.
3. The third issue relates to having sex with cousins. It says Muhammad could have sex with his cousins without paying their price, provided they migrated to Medina with him. There was no requirement for Muhammad to marry them, as it would have involved payment of dowers (purchase price) to them.
4. The fourth issue relates to having sex with women without paying their wages or price. It says Muhammad could have sex with any women who offered themselves to him without requiring him to pay for their service.

The translator was not right in translating the word "Nikah" into marriage. He did not realize that marrying a woman without paying her dower goes against the very Quranic concept of marriage in Islam. It directly contradicts what is stated in the first sentence of the verse.

If a woman offered herself to Muhammad to marry her without paying the dower money, it would not be an Islamic marriage. Therefore, the sentence with the word "Nikah" in it should have been translated to read, "if the Prophet wished to penetrate her," or "wished to have sex with her," instead of what we read in the quoted translation of the verse.

In a Hadith, we read: a woman offered herself to Muhammad for sex. He looked at her face and then lowered his eyes down, indicating he was not interested in doing Nikah (penetration) to her ((Sahih Bukhari, Vol. 7, Book 62, Number 24).

Whoever has read this Hadith would find truth in my above statement.

Allah permitted Muhammad all the sexual liberties to ensure he did not have to face any difficulty in his sex life. These liberties were reserved only for him so that he did not have to face any difficulty in satisfying his sadistic sexual desire. He denied these liberties to ordinary Muslims.

Despite having access to many women, Muhammad failed to sire a single child with any of the women he had in his harem after the death of his first wife Khadija. No one has attempted to solve this mystery other than saying 'Allah did not wish him to have a child,' but while making this assertion, they forget a saying that was then and still remains, part of the Arab tradition. Arabs believe, 'An Arab without a son is not an Arab'!

Arab men identify themselves through their sons!

The boy named Ibrahim who Muhammad is beloved to have fathered with Maria Qibtia, was not his son. He was a bastard, and I will prove it when I will have an opportunity to do it in the future.

One Muslim thinker, who is fully conversant with the Arabic of the Quran, says:

"NIKAAH in the Quran does not mean a marriage agreement unless the context brings in a man and a woman and a close relationship between them. But such context rarely appears in the Quran. It appears rather only once when the Quran talks about the offer of NIKAAH to MOSES by a father of two daughters, during MOSES' exile from Egypt.

On all other occasions where the word marriage, viz., NIKAAH is employed, it certainly means "to enter into a close working Agreement" or "to take someone under your guardianship, sponsorship, or to take possession of something."

Another Muslim thinker/scholar who has studied the Quran says this about the word "Nikah" in it:

Nikāh: Literal and employed meaning:

Nakḥ is vagina (النَّكْحُ البُضْعُ). Literally, 'nakaḥa' (نكحَ) means a man had vaginal sex with a woman (باضعها), and in employed sense, 'he married her'. From this, the employed sense of 'nikāḥ' is marriage, but literally it's genital sex (أصل النكاح الوطء). Classically, nikāḥ had other employed uses like 'the rain married the earth i.e., mixed with the earth (نكَح المطرُ الأرضَ). Another word for sex is 'wat" (وطء), to tread, mount, trample, and it's not very far fetched to imagine the notion.

There is a humorous proverbial of nikāḥ in Arabic about sexual promiscuity of a woman. Her name was Umm Khārijah. It goes like this: a man would go to her and say, I propose (خِطْبٌ), and she would say, I agree to marry (نِكْحٌ), and bingo!

The word 'aqd' (عقد) means knotting, tying up. Originally or literally, it was knotting of the genitals (figuratively), but in employed sense it becomes a contract, a marriage contract (عقد النكاح), a marriage.

Finally, the tenth verbal form of 'nakaḥa' is 'istankaḥa', meaning (literally) 'to have genital sex', but employed meaning can be 'to marry'. Marriage is a social convention with witness and dowry, but when there is no witness or no dowry it's simply sex, bodily relation.

In reality, Islamic marriage is a contract (Q2:235) for sale and purchase that requires the man to pay a certain amount in advance to the woman who will be providing services to him in bed. If he is not financially able to pay the price of the woman he wants to marry, he should, instead, marry a slave woman as slave woman cannot demand a price for her body (Quran4:25).

The Quran directs the Muslim men that the dowry or the price they pay to the women at the time of marrying them will become non-refundable to them after they have penetrated the women (cf. Q4:21). This principle is also followed by the prostitutes: after men have penetrated them, they can't ask for refund of the money they have paid to the prostitutes.

Prostitution is Islamically and legally practiced in Iran. They call it Sigheh, it being the Persian name for the Arabic name "Nikah Mut'ah;" it being a means for deriving benefit from the women by men after paying them for their service in bed (cf. Quran4:24).

The concept of Misyar and Urfi marriages has been taken from the Quran. These are temporary contracts for sex that Muslim women agree to provide to men in exchange for certain amount of money. In these marriages, men don't take responsibility if the women become pregnant and become mothers as a result of them sleeping with their customers.

In the Indian subcontinent, Muslim parents pay their would-be sons-in-law to do Nikah to their daughters. Hindu parents also indulge into this practice at the time of marrying off their daughters. I surmise Muslims have borrowed this practice from the Hindus after they invaded, occupied and settled down in India.

Submitting....

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Daniel Pipes replies:

Most interesting.

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Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".

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