Is it just corruption?

Submitted by Wayne Wagner (United States), Jan 13, 2003 at 00:31

The imposition of Saudi mores on Americans by Americans and the viciously pro-Saudi attitudes of numerous current and former U.S. officials and corporations is evident, and I do not deny the corruption factor.

However, is corruption really sufficient to explain just how thoroughly and completely all these things are imposed? Or is it something else, too?

If it is all due to corruption, then a lot of people have to be bribed over a very long period of time. To keep everyone quiet, I suppose that individuals' bribes would have to increase substantially over a long period of time.

Granted, the Saudis have the money to do this. But I should think that someone would have squealed by now. After all, it isn't the Saudis who appoint the Inspector General at the State Department for every Administration, is it?

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