please explain

Submitted by Abdul Rahman Reijerink (Australia), Jul 20, 2006 at 05:32

I have not denied that I am new to Arabic, you however seem to be unaware completely of the concept of manners. I would rather be wrong than act as you do.

I am looking at the Hans Wehr 4th ed. p975

kafara: to hide

first additional meaning under it kufr. to be irreligious etc......

I don't know why I keep getting dragged in by you. I really don't care what you think, I guess I just don't like the way you are using your superior knowledge to push your agenda without giving credit to alternate therories that you do not hold. Nor do I like the idea that you might influenece people unduly through your obvious superior command of Arabic combined with your arrogant position of utter self righteousness.

Any more and I will have to ask my friend who is writing a Phd on translating vocatives in the Quran into English. He is from Saudi so he does not share my outlook but I doubt that you can say he does not know the language since he will be working on the next edition of their "official" Qur'an.

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".