refutation
Reader comment on item: Muslim-Controlled Governments Subsidize Conversions of Kafirs
in response to reader comment: For 'Abd al-Rahman and who is really a kaffir?

Submitted by Abdul Rahman Reijerink (Australia), Jul 19, 2006 at 07:32

my argument about connotation/denotation has been turning over in my mind for days now. It has finally struck me why I am probably correct and "dhimmi" is wrong.

for Kaffir to mean (ie denotation as opposed to its common assumed meaning or connotation):-

"1. Non-Muslims (as if anyone cares).

2. Muslims under certain conditions as in the case of those who celebrate Muhammad's birthday and those who visit the tombs of Sufi saints (ah the warm and fuzzy Islam)."

the prophet Muhammad saws must have coined the word himself, just looking at your construction of it shows that it post dates the prophet saws. Therefore these are connotative meanings, so what does the actual word itself mean? If he (swas) did not coin the word, then it cannot mean specifically what is asserted above, as muslims as we understand them did not exist before then.

This is so obviously a wahhabi interpretation of the word and therefore a modern construction, how could kaffir apply to a group of people (who outnumber wahhabis) who see themselves as muslims if that meaning predates their practise? How can it be generalised as the proper meaning of the word from a small groups interpretation of it (esp. point two)?

i know this is not the clearest expression that this deserves but anyone who is engaging in dialogue should be able to understand what I am trying to say.

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