Why Is There Only One Form of Bias?

Submitted by John Buckner (United States), May 26, 2002 at 22:48

Why is it that if you happen to side with Israel you are "biased"? If you support the Arabs you are not? The whole of Europe single-mindedly and without question supports the "Palestinian Entity", yet they are not biased.

If Israel only were to respond in kind, by setting off a small bomb in a civilian area, every time a homicide bomber attacked Israel, we would see screaming headlines with the words BARBARIC, ATROCITY, MURDER, CARNAGE and the like.

Yet when a Palestinian commits an act of homicidal self-annihilation, he or she is praised as a martyr, freedom fighter, etc.

It is time we stood up and pointed out the real bias. It is time we pointed out that one never hears of even one Arab criticizing the Palestinians. You hear plenty of Jews critiquing Israel!

By the way, when it comes down to it, I am a little biased. I am biased toward liberty, self-expression, democracy, freedom of conscience and quite a few other things.

Keep up the good work!!!

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