I am confused

Submitted by Dark Planet (United States), May 22, 2002 at 11:02

I am confused... the article says at one point that "is it correct to extrapolate from the recent past that the more battering they take, the more determined they become? ... Of course not—Palestinians have the same responses to suffering as the rest of us". Then, only a couple paragraphs later, "The continued violence is not fracturing Israeli society but rather bringing it together with a rare determination and purposefulness. "

How could this be? Why is it brushed off that the Palestinians couldn't be becoming more determined, but the Israelis are?

I don't want to get into moral equivalences, or bombings vs incursions... I just want to simple ask about the seemingly contradictory premis of the article.

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