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muslims and tolerance

Reader comment on item: Islamic Law at Belmont U
in response to reader comment: Shades of Neville Chamberlain

Submitted by G.Bisvas (Germany), Apr 26, 2006 at 04:40

Islam and muslims are and can be, only after the non-muslim population component falls below 5%, somewhat tolerant towards the non-muslims.

Why do I use such a strange syntax in writing the above sentence? In order to avoid being misquoted by the muslims - and the muslims are experts in misquoting while simultaneously accusing others of misquoting.

Muslims want to prove that islam is tolerant. But for that they must first reduce the non-muslim component in the population to below 5%. The "best" in islam cannot come to the fore if there are too many non-muslims around. We non-muslims are "preventing" the "best" in islam from manifesting itself.

I have here tried to describe the muslim sentiment as understood by me.

And the "best" in islam are the unending bloody sectarian battles and interpretation wars within islam which are the muslims' most "honorable" chance to reserve a place for himself in allah's heaven.

Submitting....

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