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Tovey: Arabic, Syriac, Persian, Sanskrit and Urdu, yes Urdu

Reader comment on item: How Fares Western Civ?
in response to reader comment: Understanding Competing Contentions of Theocracy

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Aug 4, 2020 at 16:49

You wrote:

>Question: how does 'tabligi jamaat' figure into the ancient texts before the Arabic incursions east of the ancient Arabic tribal confluences(?);

Tablighi jamaat is not an Arabic term. In is Urdu/Indian/Pakistani/Arabic. In Arabic it would be مجمع التبليغيون or the Union of those that Tell (read this in the context of Islam as Muslim missionaries) However, to an Arabic speaker the term مجمع التبليغيون would have no meaning. More disasters? In Arabic a Muslim missionary is called a داعية or a Da'iya. But this is a very odd word because the word ends with a latter called Ta Marbouta or ة (same as in the word Khalifa or خليفة) However, the letter ة or Ta Marbouta makes the word feminine and not masculine. The Muslim grammarians have no clue. We kuffar that know the Arabic as well as Syriac have an answer in the case of the word خليفة and the reason is very clear. The word خليفة is a loan word from Syriac ܚܠܝܦܐ. This is vocalized in Syriac as Khalipa (he who is an ally). And now you know that Syriac P becomes Arabic F. Oh the Alif at the end? It becomes Ta Marbouta in Arabic because the Ta Marbouta is silent when the word is vocalized unless followed by a word that starts with the Arabic definite article al . et voila Syriac ܚܠܝܦܐ becomes Arabic Khalifa and still Muslim grammarians do not have an answer. Why? Because they lost the Syriac link to the Qur'an

However, in the case of Da'iya there is no clear answer and it is an embarrassment to Muslim missionaries when they are reminded that this is a feminine word!

>how old is Sanskrit

al-Tabari (the first extant Quranic exegesis) claims that the Qur'an contains loan words from Sanskrit. However, I do not believe it. Muhammad and his God belong to the ancient religions of Mesopotamia and neither one had a clue about the religions of India or about India.

> or other previous predecessors like ancient Persian or other indo-aryan languages that were used to form societal cultures in the region? Please advise.

The influence of Persia and its religions, culture and language on Islam is vast. I will just leave you with what the great 'Ali Dashti said that 70% of the foundational books of Islam were written not by Arabs but by Persians which means that the Mobeds (Zoroastrian clerics) brought to their new religion Islam, their old religion and shaped Islam as first and foremost an Iranian religion

Last, in Q105 there are two odd words: Ababeel and Sijil and neither word has a clear meaning. However, al-Tabari comes to the rescue and he tells us these are Persian words! Odd indeed after all the author of the Qur'an tells us that the Qur'an is written in pure Arabic. Oh, al-Tabari was a cultured Persian. He was not an Arab

Submitting....

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