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Question for our dear Robert and our dear Raul and Isiah 42! Two for the price of one

Reader comment on item: How Fares Western Civ?
in response to reader comment: Definition of Semitic by Merriam-Webster for Dummy No More

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Jul 25, 2020 at 10:30

Dear readers,

Every tablighee and his cousin tell us that Muhammad is mentioned in Isiah 42! I'm not joking! Read and laugh.

So I have a few questions for our dear Robert:

1. How come Muhammad never mentioned in the Hadith and Allah never mentioned in the Qur'an that we can find Muhammad mentioned in Isiah 42? Did Allah run out of ink and this is why he did not mention that we can find Muhammad's name in Isiah 42? Or did Allah tell Gabriel and Gabriel forgot to tell Muhammad? Or there was indeed a verse in the Qur'an however the goat ate it too? What a disaster.

2. The Bible is a corrupted book, as we are told by Muslims, right our dear Robert? So why would Muslims like you quote a corrupted book? Hint: Only a "dummy" would quote a corrupted book and use it as evidence!

Submitting....

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