Submitted by Richard(United Kingdom), Dec 16, 2004 at 06:44
This is fantastic news, but my question is whether it can have even deeper and thus even better effect. Can, for example, US universities be sued in tandem for irresponsibly hosting "institutes" that are nothing more than a front for terrorism, anti-semitism, and Islamicism? The connection is clear and the players overlap do they not? What is the difference in law between those individuals and groups found guilty under this precedent and the universities that aid and abet their actions- either through complicity, or negligence?
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