Balfour Declaration, remember?

Submitted by Andrew (United States), Jun 2, 2010 at 06:12

The British were legally given administration of Palestine (which they illegal split in two in 1921) on the basis of facilitating Jewish immigration there and setting up for a Jewish state, by the League of Nations. This was codified BINDING international law, not one of those useless UN resolutions. The British Mandate of Palestine was never "Palestinian land." And the mandate had terms which stipulated that as a class A mandate, independence was to be given, so thus a Jewish state was perfectly legal.

Your analogy is flawed because the Southwest is legally sovereign territory of the USA. British Palestine was not sovereign Arab land. But nevertheless, they could secede if they wanted to, per plebescite, and chances are if it were strong enough, they would be able, because the consitution does allow for secession, provided that it isn't done to legalize immoral, like slavery.

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