Historic Entitlement

Submitted by Wolf Lorber (United States), May 5, 2010 at 14:37

The analogy to Hispanics in the American southwest is faulty. Even if their forebears settled there (as Spaniards or Mexicans) prior to or contemporaneously with Americans, this would not in itself entitle them to sovereignity. But Jewish claims to the land of Israel (and Jeruselem) have been continuous from ancient times, as recognized (earlier) by the U.N. when partitioning the land.

International law requires that a territorial claim be maintained by substantially continuous settlement together with govermental administration (as is done by several nations in Antactica), i.e., with no formal or defacto abandonment. Jews once had a nation in the middle east, which was usurped over time by various other nations. But the Jews never relinquished their national claim and have always had a presence there. Arabs there existed only as individual families, and never had national identity. Too bad for them that most of them fled.

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