why "other than Marseilles, they are all northerly." protestant-catholic divide ?

Submitted by myth (Germany), Jan 25, 2010 at 12:33

The immigration is a result of WW2. The available workforce in Germany and other countries was reduced by fatal victims of WW2 and there was a need to produce all sorts of goods and infrastructur coming out of a wartime production and a destroyed country. Southern Europe itself was much poorer at the time so the first wave of immigrants came from Italy,Spain,Portugal,Greece. Of course those southern countries had no need for workforce themselves, also largely intact after the war.

Only the second wave of immigration came from muslim countries such as turkey and morocco with southern europe already exhausted. Marseille of course has been for thousands of years a harbour city and with the natural connection to north-african colonies would they be french or belong to the roman empire. It still remains a question wether or not the protestant-catholic divide in europe also plays a role in the magnitude of the immigration.

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