monopolizing prophets

Submitted by IsraDane (Israel), Jul 2, 2008 at 10:58

Ahh, I see, so because your "prophet", when he wrote the Qur'an (yes, this will make you angry that's why I write it), decided to monopolize all previous religions by including them as proto-Muslims, that means that all things holy to these people suddenly belongs to Muslims? Let's say that Muhammad, when he wrote the Qur'an (see above parenthesis), had known about Buddha and included him, would that then also make all pagodas Muslim shrines per default (to the exclusion of Buddhists)?

Oh, and btw. Who is talking to Moses above? The Muslims? 3000 years prior to Muhammad? Or the Banu Isra'il?

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