A question for Dr. Pipes Reader comment on item: Preface
Submitted by Sully(United States), Nov 26, 2007 at 16:49
This question of distinguishing Islam versus Islamism would seem to be related to another question.
Has there ever been a majority Muslim, Sharia ruled, country that has peacefully evolved into a liberal state with real freedom of religion in the same way that multiple countries have evolved real freedom of religion despite having long had Christianity as the state religion?
Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened for relevance, substance, and tone, and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome, but comments are rejected if scurrilous, off-topic, vulgar, ad hominem, or otherwise viewed as inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the Guidelines for Comments. For informational purposes, we identify countries from which comments are sent.
Daniel Pipes replies:
Of course not. That does not mean it cannot happen. Just look at Max Weber's Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism, written just over a century ago. Weber looked around and concluded one had to be Protestant to succeed at capitalism. Today, that looks very historically dated. Same with Islam and modernity. It can happen but it will take work and time.